I began this blog in order to officially record the fact that on Jun 07, 2010 at 14:38:04, I posted the following message on the Huffington Post (http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2010/06/03/mlb-will-not-reverse-blow_n_599610.html?show_comment_id=49693984#comment_49693984):
Is it possible that Galarraga didn’t have complete possession of the ball at first base?
Don’t answer yet, don’t judge yet, just WATCH–PLEASE WATCH–the following clip from 4:00-4:10:
I don’t have a dog in this race: I’m not a fan of either team, so don’t
waste your time insulting me: I’m not trying to take away from the
great feat of a great pitcher, I’m seriously asking this question.
Is it completely certain that Galarraga had possession of the ball before the runner hit first base?
(Don’t jump to conclusions: watch from 4:00 to 4:10 in the clip above, then return)
Does it not look as though Galarraga was bobbling the ball and only
gained complete possession of it after the runner had hit first base?
Or is it sufficient for the ball to be within the area of the web of
the mitt although not entirely trapped within it until after the runner
crosses first base?
I hope I’m wrong. I hope the answer to the question above is yes. I
hope he really did pitch a perfect game. I’m just asking this question,
not rhetorically but with genuine curiosity.